BRCU Online 2026: Test Your Knowledge
A 46-year-old man with a history of ESKD secondary to HIV-associated nephropathy comes to an outpatient transplantation clinic for a routine follow-up examination. The patient underwent deceased-donor kidney transplantation 7 months ago and received induction therapy with antithymoglobulin. His nadir post-transplantation serum creatinine concentration was 1.1 mg/dL and his HIV viral load last month was undetectable. The patient is EBV seropositive and CMV seronegative; he completed valganciclovir prophylactic therapy 1 month ago. He has not had rashes, chest pain, extremity swelling, or exposure to sick contacts. Current medications include tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, prednisone, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, nifedipine, famotidine, ritonavir, dolutegravir, and abacavir. On physical examination, oral thrush is observed.
In addition to initiation of oral fluconazole, which of the following is the next best step?
- Initiate ganciclovir.
- Discontinue ritonavir.
- Decrease tacrolimus dose.
- Change famotidine to pantoprazole.
- Increase prednisone dose.
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